A+ Core 1
Highlights:
- 52 exam-style questions
- Detailed explanations and references
- Simulation and custom modes
- Custom exam settings to drill down into specific topics
- 180-day access period
- Pass or money back guarantee
What is in the package
The content, tone, and tenor of the questions mimic the actual exam. Along with the detailed explanations and the exam-taker tips, we have extensively referenced AWS documentation to get you up to speed on all domain areas tested for the 220-1101 exam.
Please consider this course the final pit-stop so that you can cross the winning line with absolute confidence and get A+ certified! Trust our process; you are in good hands.
Complete A+ Core 1 domains coverage
1. Hardware
Prepares you to test your knowledge of all aspects of mobile devices, laptops, tablets, and smartphones, from installation and connectivity to the management of devices.
2. Networking
Helps you test your knowledge of all aspects of networking, including protocols and ports through to different networking devices and the types of connectivity.
3. Mobile Devices
Tests your knowledge of all aspects of hardware, cable types, devices, and the appropriate memory.
4. Virtualization & Cloud Computing
Tests your knowledge of all aspects of virtualization, including client-side virtualization, the use of resources, and security. In addition, it helps you to prepare to work with cloud models and services.
5. Hardware & Network Troubleshooting
Tests your knowledge of the best practices for troubleshooting, then examines how to troubleshoot different aspects of networking and hardware.
Master the A+ Core 1 exam with CertVista's comprehensive 65 exam-like questions that replicate the official CompTIA testing environment. Immerse yourself in every question format you'll face on exam day - from traditional multiple-choice to interactive drag-and-drop exercises, challenging select-and-place scenarios, and hands-on performance-based questions. By practicing with our authentic simulation, you'll walk into your certification exam with the confidence that comes from familiarity and thorough preparation.
Experience learning that goes beyond surface-level memorization. Each question in our practice tests includes an in-depth explanation that transforms every answer into a learning opportunity. We break down the technical concepts, explain core principles, and illustrate real-world applications, helping you understand what's correct and why. This deeper comprehension ensures you're equipped to handle both the certification exam and the daily challenges of IT support with expertise and confidence.
Take control of your certification journey with CertVista's dual study approaches. Our Custom Mode empowers you to create targeted practice sessions focused on specific exam objectives, letting you strengthen your knowledge in key areas at your own pace. When you're ready to test your complete exam readiness, switch to Simulation Mode for a timed, full-length exam experience that mirrors the actual certification environment. This flexibility ensures you can adapt your preparation strategy to match your learning style and schedule.
Transform your study sessions into actionable insights with our intuitive analytics dashboard. Monitor your improvement over time, analyze your performance patterns, and identify knowledge gaps with precision. Our detailed metrics show your proficiency across different exam objectives, helping you allocate your study time effectively. By understanding exactly where you stand and what you need to focus on, you can optimize your preparation strategy and approach your exam with data-backed confidence.
What's in the 220-1101 exam
The CompTIA 220-1101, also known as the Core 1 exam, is a crucial part of the A+ certification series. This certification serves as a foundational milestone for IT professionals, validating essential skills and knowledge in hardware, networking, mobile devices, and cloud technologies. The widely recognized CompTIA A+ certification is often a prerequisite for various entry-level IT roles, making the 220-1101 exam a significant step in your career.
The CompTIA A+ (220-1101) Core 1 exam tests your knowledge of mobile devices, networking, hardware, virtualization, and cloud computing. The exam consists of a maximum of 90 questions, including multiple-choice and performance-based questions, and you'll have 90 minutes to complete it. A passing score 675 (on a scale of 100-900) is required.
The exam costs USD 239 for a single attempt, though discounted vouchers may be available through training partners.
The CompTIA A+ (220-1101) Core 1 exam is one of two exams required to earn the CompTIA A+ certification - you'll also need to pass the Core 2 (220-1102) exam.
The A+ certification is valid for three years from the date of passing your exam and can be renewed through continuing education or retaking the latest version of the tests.
For best results, CompTIA recommends 9-12 months of hands-on field experience before attempting this exam, though this is not a strict requirement.
Sample 220-1101 questions
Get a taste of the AWS Certified AI Practitioner exam with our carefully curated sample questions below. These questions mirror the actual exam's style, complexity, and subject matter, giving you a realistic preview of what to expect. Each question comes with comprehensive explanations, relevant AWS documentation references, and valuable test-taking strategies from our expert instructors.
While these sample questions provide excellent study material, we encourage you to try our free demo for the complete exam preparation experience. The demo features our state-of-the-art test engine that simulates the real exam environment, helping you build confidence and familiarity with the exam format. You'll experience timed testing, question marking, and review capabilities – just like the actual AWS certification exam.
As an IT consultant designing a computer system for a medical practice with a central office and multiple satellite locations, you must choose the most appropriate device for the examination rooms. The system must comply with HIPAA guidelines for storing medical records, which will be centralized at the main office. What type of computer system should you recommend for installation in the examination rooms of the satellite offices?
Thin client
Tablet
Server
Thick client
The most suitable type of system for the examination rooms in this scenario is a thin client. A thin client is an ideal choice for several reasons:
- Thin clients rely on a central server for processing power and data storage. This aligns well with the requirement to store all medical records electronically at the central office, ensuring compliance with HIPAA guidelines for data security and centralized management.
- These devices have minimal local storage and processing capabilities, which reduces the risk of sensitive patient data being stored on local devices in the examination rooms. This feature enhances data security and privacy, crucial aspects of HIPAA compliance.
- Thin clients are easy to manage and maintain remotely, benefiting a distributed satellite office network. Software updates and security patches can be applied centrally, ensuring all examination room devices are consistently up-to-date and secure.
- They typically have a longer lifespan and lower replacement costs than full-fledged computers, making them a cost-effective solution for multiple examination rooms across various locations.
The other options are less suitable for this specific scenario:
- While portable and user-friendly, tablets often have local storage capabilities that could potentially compromise HIPAA compliance if not properly managed. They also may lack the processing power for more complex medical applications.
- Servers are not typically installed in examination rooms. They are better suited for the central office where data processing and storage occur. Thick clients, or traditional desktop computers, have substantial local processing power and storage. This makes them less ideal for examination rooms in a HIPAA-compliant environment, as they increase the risk of local data storage and require more individual maintenance.
By choosing thin clients for the examination rooms, the medical practice can ensure HIPAA compliance, centralized data management, and efficient system administration across all satellite offices.
As a network administrator, you're explaining the purpose of DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) to a junior colleague. Which of the following statements accurately describes the primary function of DHCP in a network environment?
DHCP is used to automate IP address assignment.
DHCP is used to resolve NetBIOS names to IP addresses.
DHCP is used to verify the IP address on a Windows-based computer.
DHCP is used to resolve host names to IP addresses.
DHCP, or Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol, is a network protocol designed to simplify the administration of IP addressing in a network. Its primary function is to automatically assign IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to devices on a network. This automation eliminates the need for manual configuration of each device, which can be time-consuming and error-prone, especially in large networks.
When a device connects to a network with DHCP enabled, it requests an IP address. The DHCP server responds by assigning an available IP address from its pool of addresses and other essential network information such as subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server addresses. This process occurs dynamically, hence the name "Dynamic" Host Configuration Protocol.
The other statements are incorrect:
- DHCP is not used to resolve NetBIOS names to IP addresses. This function is typically performed by WINS (Windows Internet Name Service) or through broadcasts in smaller networks.
- DHCP does not verify IP addresses on Windows-based computers. When needed, IP address verification is typically done through other means, such as the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) or manual checks.
- DHCP is not used to resolve host names to IP addresses. DNS (Domain Name System) performs this function.
By automating IP address assignment, DHCP significantly reduces the administrative overhead in managing network configurations, especially in large or dynamic network environments. It ensures efficient use of IP addresses and significantly reduces configuration errors, simplifying the process of adding new devices to the network.
Objective:
- Networking
Sub-Objective:
- Compare and contrast Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) ports, protocols, and their purposes
You work as a tech support technician. A customer reports problems with his laptop’s monitor. He explains that the liquid crystal display (LCD) is no longer spreading light over the entire screen.
Which component of the LCD is most likely causing this problem?
Vertical alignment
Inverter
Diffuser
Deflection yoke
Electron gun
The correct answer is the Diffuser. The diffuser in an LCD screen distributes the backlight evenly across the display, helping to ensure uniform screen brightness. When the diffuser is defective or damaged, it can cause areas of the screen to appear dim or have inconsistent lighting, leading to poor display quality.
The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:
- The Vertical alignment refers to the arrangement of liquid crystals in the display panel but does not distribute the light.
- The Inverter converts DC power to AC power needed for the backlight but does not impact light distribution across the screen.
- The Deflection yoke is a component in CRTs (Cathode Ray Tubes), not modern LCDs.
- The Electron gun is also a CRT component that is irrelevant to LCDs.
Understanding the role of the diffuser is crucial when troubleshooting LCD issues because it directly affects the screen's uniformity and overall viewing experience. If a user reports uneven lighting on the screen, checking and possibly replacing the diffuser might resolve the issue.
Objective:
Mobile Devices
Sub-Objective:
Compare and contrast the display components of mobile devices
You want to buy a longer charging cord for your company's employees, who use company-provided iPhone 11 phones.
USB-C
Mini-USB
Lightning
Micro-USB
IEEE 1394
The iPhone 11 uses a Lightning port for charging and data transfer. The Lightning cable is Apple's proprietary connector, introduced in 2012 to replace the older 30-pin dock connector. It features a compact, reversible design, making it easy to plug in without worrying about the orientation of the connector.
USB-C is incorrect because while newer Apple devices like the iPhone 12 series and higher use a USB-C to Lightning cable, the iPhone 11 specifically uses a Lightning port for charging. Thanks to its high-speed data transfer rates and robust power delivery capabilities, USB-C is also used in many non-Apple devices for both data transfer and charging.
Mini-USB is incorrect because it is an older standard commonly used in older digital cameras and some early smartphones. It is incompatible with the iPhone 11, which never supported this connector.
Micro-USB is incorrect because it is another older standard primarily used in many Android devices. It is more compact than Mini-USB but does not fit the iPhone 11's Lightning port.
- IEEE 1394 (FireWire) is incorrect because it is a standard for high-speed data transfer commonly used in professional video equipment and peripherals like external hard drives. IPhones or other modern smartphones are not used for charging or data transfer.
To summarize, the correct choice for charging an iPhone 11 is a Lightning cable. It ensures compatibility with the device's port and meets the charging and data transfer requirements.
Objective:
Mobile Devices
Sub-Objective:
Given a scenario, set up and configure accessories and ports of mobile devices.
Your company’s wireless device policy requires you to wirelessly back up your mobile device data, including apps, pictures, and music, so you can later retrieve the data on any mobile device, even if the data is on another mobile device. Which iPhone feature can perform this function?
iTunes
App Store
iCloud
Apple Wallet
The correct answer is iCloud. iCloud is Apple’s cloud storage and cloud computing service. It allows you to store and back up various types of data, such as apps, photos, music, documents, and settings, to Apple’s remote servers. Because the data is stored in the cloud, you can access and retrieve it from any device signed in with the same Apple ID, making it easy to switch between different devices and maintain continuity.
iTunes is a media player, media library, Internet radio broadcaster, and mobile device management application developed by Apple. While iTunes allows you to manage and sync media content and apps on your device, it requires a wired connection and does not provide real-time, cloud-based backup and sync functionality.
The App Store is Apple's digital distribution platform for mobile apps on its iOS operating system. It allows you to download and install apps but does not handle data backup or cross-device data retrieval.
Apple Wallet is an app that organizes and accesses things like boarding passes, tickets, credit cards, and loyalty cards. It does not offer any form of backing up or retrieving data across multiple devices.
In conclusion, iCloud's ability to store and sync data wirelessly and access it from multiple devices meets the requirements stated in the question. This feature is the most suitable for backing up and retrieving data stored on an iPhone.
Objective:
Mobile Devices
Sub-Objective:
Given a scenario, configure basic mobile-device network connectivity and application support
You're configuring a network and must identify the network prefix for an unsubnetted Class C IP address. Which of the following prefixes is correct?
/8
/24
/32
/16
The correct network prefix for an unsubnetted Class C IP address is /24.
Class C IP addresses use the first three octets (24 bits) for the network portion, leaving the last octet (8 bits) for host addresses. This division results in a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, equivalent to the /24 prefix in CIDR notation.
The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:
/8is used for Class A networks, which use only the first octet for the network portion./32represents a single host address, not a network prefix./16is used for Class B networks, which use the first two octets for the network portion.
Understanding network prefixes is crucial for proper IP addressing and subnetting in network configurations.
Subnetting is the process of dividing a larger network into smaller subnetworks, or subnets. This practice is essential for efficient network management, improved security, and optimal use of IP addresses.
Why Subnet?
- Improved network performance: Subnetting can enhance overall network speed by reducing traffic.
- Enhanced security: Subnets can be isolated, limiting access between network parts.
- Efficient use of IP addresses: Subnetting allows for more flexible allocation of IP addresses.
- Simplified network management: Administrators can organize and manage smaller, logical groups of devices.
Understanding IP Addresses and Subnet Masks
To comprehend subnetting, you need to understand IP addresses and subnet masks:
IP Addresses
An IPv4 address is a 32-bit number, typically represented in dotted-decimal notation (e.g., 192.168.1.1). It's divided into four octets, each containing 8 bits.
Subnet Masks
A subnet mask is also a 32-bit number that determines which part of an IP address belongs to the network and which part identifies the host. For example, 255.255.255.0 is a common subnet mask.
The Subnetting Process
- Determine the network class: IP addresses are divided into classes (A, B, C) based on their first octet.
- Choose the number of subnets needed: This depends on your network requirements.
- Calculate the new subnet mask: This involves "borrowing" bits from the host portion of the IP address.
- Determine subnet addresses: Calculate the range of IP addresses for each subnet.
CIDR Notation
Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) notation is a compact way to specify IP addresses and their subnet masks. It's written as the IP address followed by a forward slash and the number of network bits. For example:
192.168.1.0/24is equivalent to192.168.1.0with a subnet mask of255.255.255.010.0.0.0/8represents a large network with 16,777,214 usable host addresses
Subnetting Examples
Example 1: Subnetting a Class C Network
Given: 192.168.1.0/24 (Class C network)
Goal: Create 4 subnets
- We need 2 bits to create 4 subnets (2^2 = 4)
- New subnet mask:
255.255.255.192(/26) - Subnets:
192.168.1.0/26(0-63)192.168.1.64/26(64-127)192.168.1.128/26(128-191)192.168.1.192/26(192-255)
Example 2: Subnetting a Class B Network
Given: 172.16.0.0/16 (Class B network)
Goal: Create 14 subnets
- We need 4 bits to create 14 subnets (2^4 = 16, which is the next power of 2 above 14)
- New subnet mask:
255.255.240.0(/20) - Subnets will have a range of 4096 IP addresses each
Conclusion
Subnetting is a powerful tool in network design and management. It allows for more efficient use of IP addresses, improved network performance, and enhanced security. While it may seem complex at first, with practice, subnetting becomes an invaluable skill for any network administrator.
You are replacing RAM in a laptop and have disconnected the AC adapter and battery. What is the next critical step?
Disconnect the power supply from the motherboard.
Remove the CMOS battery.
Remove the memory.
Put on an antistatic wrist strap.
Protecting against electrostatic discharge (ESD) is essential before handling any internal computer components, especially sensitive ones like RAM modules. An antistatic wrist strap safely grounds you and prevents static electricity from damaging the components.
The other options are incorrect:
- Disconnecting the power supply from the motherboard isn't possible in laptops since power supplies are integrated into the system board.
- Removing the CMOS battery is unnecessary for RAM upgrades and would only reset BIOS settings.
- Removing the memory immediately without ESD protection could damage the modules through static discharge.
The key principle here is safety first - proper ESD protection must be in place before handling any internal components.
Objective:
Mobile Devices
Sub-Objective:
Given a scenario, install and configure laptop hardware and components
Frequently Asked Questions
The CompTIA 220-1101 exam, or Core 1, is part of the A+ certification series. It covers essential IT skills like hardware, networking, mobile devices, and cloud technologies.
The CompTIA 220-1101 exam typically consists of up to 90 questions. These can be multiple-choice, drag-and-drop, or performance-based questions.
The exam covers five main areas: hardware, networking, mobile devices, virtualization & cloud computing, and hardware & network troubleshooting.
Preparation involves:
- Understanding exam objectives.
- Hands-on practice with relevant technologies.
- Using reliable study materials like CertVista's practice tests.
Joining study groups can also be beneficial.
The passing score for the CompTIA 220-1101 exam is typically around 675 out of 900. For the most accurate information, check the official CompTIA website.
Exam fees vary by location but range from $200 to $230. Always check the official CompTIA website for current pricing and possible discount offers.
Regular practice exams are essential for tracking your progress. Consider taking a practice test at least once a week before your exam date.
Our practice tests are continuously updated according to the latest CompTIA guidelines, ensuring you have accurate and up-to-date material from which to study.
Yes, our platform is mobile-friendly. You can access CertVista's practice tests on tablets, smartphones, desktops, and laptops.
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